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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)! W1 }4 X5 k8 D8 i. a7 s: l) `7 s+ y L
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Proof: 4 ~+ T, r# l1 Q9 L+ E( G
Let n >1 be an integer d- F& H$ S% P& w- a* F
Basis: (n=2)
~" w8 G/ H! @0 O" r2 y5 o7 D 2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 3; i$ c" t/ E- C# V) n' C p
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Induction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that! |1 m- O! e) v
K^3 – K can by divided by 3.6 _ O9 c. b" H0 F6 Y2 M1 ~7 L
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Now, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 3; D" {/ Y6 G" O p) M
since we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem' U6 p" [* }) @9 j8 ]$ P
Then we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)
4 ~5 S$ d( R" J" s3 Z! o = K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K
3 z7 R. f: E0 Z" l' b; s$ s) u* O = ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)
, P" o, O; y: j4 B7 { = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
3 a/ W: b! V/ J+ M( }by Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>0
5 e3 F' s$ V/ _2 @' k+ CSo we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
3 c7 A% i% a2 U = 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)( ?# X* ^4 O. U, J& L) k
= 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 3
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/ M1 E8 {2 F. ~2 Z4 s8 fConclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.
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[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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