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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)
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3 M+ D! f* r: W% }) d: BProof:
" Y4 D) ^/ a' ~Let n >1 be an integer
3 F/ ~4 `3 i' Z' z2 x5 A# wBasis: (n=2)
r" x) {' }" I' c1 R) d 2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 3
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& ^" p1 a& I% t4 t) iInduction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that
# ?) z! p7 n7 g9 h6 W K^3 – K can by divided by 3. Q2 Q. d+ A, y+ m+ i$ B9 d' K! K
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Now, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 38 e! l1 {6 j' |; x3 S% u0 Q* b
since we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem6 P$ Q0 a4 ` U$ Y4 h7 Y
Then we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)
& x5 ^, F+ m. a4 H t+ q" p+ ]1 m2 a = K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K3 | b4 u; P! Y0 |
= ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)
j2 S! D# j) y0 j = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
# _# w3 f3 v% C X) G/ |by Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>0
. E( w- O. {( ~% dSo we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)$ q1 a4 u* p ^9 [ ? F
= 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)! V; w' ^# o6 z5 U# d
= 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 3
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- n* n4 K- Y# {2 \" x( d5 pConclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.+ G; K E( U- a3 W! p& z& o9 d2 P1 l
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[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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