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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)& H8 T. Y3 o3 J
~! d, b" U- u6 JProof: ; v. S- i' Y2 b8 V+ m
Let n >1 be an integer 2 p& ]% b( I _3 A7 C4 |8 ]( H, V
Basis: (n=2)
% J6 d$ J0 M" e3 }3 } 2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 3: A6 w) G2 e3 C
9 u9 e- T5 Q% }8 C( b2 ^
Induction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that
4 A, |$ b5 I+ w1 C K^3 – K can by divided by 3., C1 M* Z' L [9 s5 O
8 X2 z+ ?: M* s' d
Now, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 3! h$ M0 n: d( V" g* Z% L- ]9 P( i
since we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem* e8 h. i+ d# k$ S
Then we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)
6 H1 j# {4 E! U7 I = K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K; L4 _4 B4 a) Q! U n" M
= ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)
: x" Q6 t6 @. J* `0 u: A7 L = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)) H. U U- W( A& k O, v* n
by Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>0+ |. t8 X: P7 a S5 o
So we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
6 H2 \5 ~2 y7 _ = 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)
1 k' ~% L/ v: i' k = 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 3 F, G+ ]$ e0 V! }7 l+ J2 B- l
9 V* @! b8 H* o0 D- \' A5 ^
Conclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.
( L& O* `6 a0 h+ E1 ^9 u2 e, v: N; h
[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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