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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)
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* ~) |) l0 I5 v; c. ]Proof: 4 }- ^0 H% l$ n6 h
Let n >1 be an integer
9 R1 g. E, @! s! Y) u6 S9 Y: h" WBasis: (n=2) C0 e; ^; x* u
2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 39 k' D/ Q- B8 R$ }+ q
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Induction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that: E9 ], L6 H" R |6 x* C, r9 h
K^3 – K can by divided by 3.
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Now, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 3
% e" U. ~# A/ e3 Ysince we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem
# L" K9 V' g5 C9 {& ]Then we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)7 h- T: U3 a, F+ |
= K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K; b* B4 _ M( ]1 X9 B: X' W
= ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)
[- B% L8 I% R( N+ u) @ = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
+ M1 T; ]. Y* M4 l" P2 |by Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>0
; l7 l! l/ K4 U5 bSo we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
9 z7 I z# A. r. e) V = 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)2 N- x2 \4 n- z8 a5 ]
= 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 31 H5 h1 `$ [3 m7 B/ J2 q3 s" N# D
, s% o2 `% O1 ~( u) @, |% c! aConclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.+ Z$ D0 [+ P! [; j f4 \% q1 x1 V
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[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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