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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)
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Proof: & e8 a! U! C1 l0 D2 a: G
Let n >1 be an integer
- M/ G3 [) F* d9 |Basis: (n=2)
3 |9 J3 U W8 A 2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 3: p% b$ K& p2 t. l5 \ k
4 r: @. o( d% ^% X/ G# `, ?Induction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that7 [. ?" c7 y, o B) `- K, d3 i
K^3 – K can by divided by 3.& x) F+ U' z! w; {: q0 h- G+ P8 i
# {, c T4 V7 [/ F: WNow, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 39 k. t5 E7 z5 P3 V1 I
since we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem
/ c/ B" W, d9 U0 V w: U) w0 NThen we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)& m. e0 A2 ~% M* R( w
= K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K
L7 |! f! K* S1 z = ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)9 i; ?6 v8 S( ^% B3 n6 N9 W$ e# r0 t
= ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
# m- M3 x% I5 r/ Vby Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>01 x# z9 F( `+ T V' k% N
So we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)3 t; b; D; Q' K7 I
= 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)3 `. {/ y9 A4 u; C3 ?6 P% i
= 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 3$ T6 }! ~: Z; S; l, l6 i
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Conclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.
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[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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